DM
Question Booklet Version
11
(Write this number on your
Answer Sheet)
MH-SSET – 2014
Speciality – Pathology
MH-SSET Roll No.
Answer Sheet No.
*11*
Question Booklet Sr. No.
(Write this number on
your Answer Sheet)
Day and Date:
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
th
Sunday, 8 June 2014
Total Makrs : 50
This is to certify that the entries of MH-SSET Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.
Candidate’s Signature
Invigilator’s Signature
Instructions to Candidates
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This question booklet contains 150 objective SINGLE BEST RESPONSE Type Questions (MCQs) ; distributed
in two Sections viz Section A of 100 MCQs and Section B of 50 MCQs. Each MCQ is of one mark. There is no
negative marking.
The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet are issued separately at the start of the
examination.
Section ‘A’ contains 100 questions covering all the subjects of I, II and III MBBS course. Section B contains
50 questions in the subject of Broad Speciality in which the candidate has done postgraduation (MD or MS).
Candidate should check that correct question paper as per the speciality is received.
Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make
correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER
(OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark correct entries. Special care should be taken to fill
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION and SERIAL NO. and MH-SSET Roll No. accurately. The correctness of
entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and
Question Booklet.
Read each question carefully. Read the serial order of four options i.e. A, B, C & D of the MCQs carefully,
including those which are ‘fill in the blank’ type of MCQs, while marking the answer.
Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given under each question.
Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question only.
Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answer once marked.
Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
No mark shall be awarded for the particular question if the examinee has marked two or more answers to it or
has done overwriting or scratching etc. in the Answer Sheet.
Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer Sheet and the Question Booklet is to be
returned to the invigilator after both the candidate and invigilator have signed.
No candidate is allowed to leave the Examination Hall till the examination session is over.
P.T.O.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
DM
Patho.
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SECTION – A
1. The treatment of choice for phobic disorder is
A) Psychotherapy
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Behavioural therapy
D) 5 HT reuptake inhibitors
2. Sweating, palpitations, shaking, chest pain and intense fear developing within minutes,
the clinical diagnosis is
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Acute Psychosis
C) Schizophrenia
D) Panic Attack
3. Cluster C includes which of the following personality disorder ?
A) paranoid
B) histrionic
C) borderline
D) avoidant
4. Schneider’s FRS (First Rank Symptoms) of Schizophrenia include all of the following
EXCEPT
A) Thought insertion
B) Delusional perception
C) Thought blocking
D) Somatic passivity
5. The Local Anaesthetic which has more cardiovascular toxicity in case of accidental
intravascular injection is
A) Lidocaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Ropivacaine
D) Levobupivacaine
6. Local Anaesthetics act on
A) Open Na+ channel
B) Closed Na+ channel
C) Open K+ channel
D) Closed K+ channel
7. The ultra short acting opioid is
A) Fentanyl
B) Alfentanil
C) Sufentanyl
D) Remifentanil
8. Following all are benzyl isoquinolinium compounds EXCEPT
DM
A) Mivacurium
B) Rocuronium
C) Atracurium
D) Doxacurium
Patho.
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9. The Blood/Gas partition co-efficient of sevoflurane at 37°C is
A) 0.42
B) 2.4
C) 0.65
D) 0.47
10. Psig stands for
A) Pounds per square inch gauge
B) Pressure per square inch gauge
C) Pressure per square inch goal
D) Pounds per square inch goal
11. Chalazion is a chronic granulomatous inflammation of a
A) Zeis gland
B) Wolfring gland
C) Meibomian gland
D) Moll gland
12. The type of laser employed for treating posterior capsule thickening after cataract
surgery is
A) Krypton laser
B) Excimer laser
C) Argon laser
D) YAG laser
13. Blood supply to the parietal pleura is by the
A) Bronchial circulation
B) Pulmonary arteries
C) Subclavian, internal mammary and intercostal arteries
D) Pulmonary veins
14. Active tuberculosis during pregnancy should be treated with following regimen
A) Isoniazid (INH) + Ethambutol
B) Isoniazid + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
C) Isoniazid + Pyrizinamide + Streptomycin
D) Isoniazid + Ethambutol + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
15. Maximum dose of radiation per year in a human which is safe
A) 5 rads
DM
B) 1 rad
C) 10 rads
D) 20 rads
Patho.
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16. Most radiosensitive brain tumor is
A) Ependymoma
B) Medullo blastoma
C) Astrocytoma
D) Craniopharyngioma
17. In x-ray chest PA view left atrial enlargement causes all EXCEPT
A) Left hilar enlargement
B) Left lower lobe collapse
C) Double density shadow
D) Widening of carina
18. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating
A) Interstial lung disease
B) Lung mass
C) Pleural effusion
D) Mediastinal lymphademapathy
19. There is a possibility of unilateral disease in kidney when there is a difference in
length of kidney by
A) 0.5 cm or less
B) 1 cm
C) 1 to 1.5 cm
D) 2 cm or more
20. Bilirubin level causing kernicterus in a term infant is
A) 10 mg/dl
B) 8 mg/dl
C) More than 20 mg/dl
D) 10 – 12 mg/dl
21. Urinary incontinence in uterovaginal prolapse is mostly due to
A) Truecontinence
B) Urge incontinence
C) Detrusor instability
D) Stress incontinence
22. Which of the following genital infection is associated with preterm labour ?
DM
A) Human papilloma virus
B) Monilial vaginitis
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Trichomonas vaginitis
Patho.
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23. Normal vaginal pH during pregnancy is
A) increased
B) unchanged
C) decreased
D) none of the above
24. In semen analysis normal sperm concentration is
A) > 10 million/mL
B) > 15 million/mL
C) > 20 million/mL
D) > 25 million/mL
25. “McMurray’s Test” is done for integrity of
A) Anterior cruciate ligament
B) Posterior cruciate ligament
C) Meniscus
D) Medial collateral ligament
26. Usually the first joint to get involved in Ankylosing spondylitis is
A) Sacroiliac joint
B) Hip joint
C) Knee joint
D) Facet joints of spine
27. Commonest cause of early onset paraplegia in TB of the spine is
A) Granulation tissue
B) Tubercular Abscess
C) Infective thrombosis
D) Sequestrum in the spinal canal
28. Hollowing between metacarpals is seen in
A) Radial nerve injury
B) Ulnar nerve injury
C) Median nerve injury
D) Ant. interosseus nerve injury
29. In fracture healing, stage of callus lasts for about
A) 2-3 weeks
B) 4-8 weeks
C) 4-12 weeks
D) 8-16 weeks
30. Following air sinuses open in middle meatus of nose, EXCEPT
DM
A) Frontal
B) Maxillary
C) Middle ethmoidal
D) Posterior ethmoidal
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31. A paralyzed vocal cord under stroboscopy
A) Seen to vibrate more
B) Seen to vibrate less
C) Does not vibrate at all
D) Vibrates with normal amplitude
32. Mickulicz cell and Russel bodies are characteristic of
A) Rhinoscleroma
B) Rhinosporidiosis
C) Plasma cell disorder
D) Midline granuloma
33. Highest density of goblet cells seen in
A) Ethmoid sinus
B) Maxillary sinus
C) Frontal sinus
D) Sphenoid sinus
34. Fordyce’s granules (spots) in oral cavity arise from
A) Mucous glands
B) Taste buds
C) Sebaceous glands
D) Minor salivary glands
35. Antihistone Antibodies are associated with
A) Neonatal Lupus Erythematosus
B) Discoid Lupus Erythematosus
C) Drug induced Lupus Erythematosus
D) Systemic Sclerosis
36. Prolonged use of a potent topical steroid ointment on the skin can cause
A) Lichenification
B) Photosensitivity
C) Striae
D) Pigmentation
37. Condyloma lata are seen in this stage of syphilis
A) Primary
DM
B) Secondary
C) Late latent
D) Tertiary
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38. Heliotrope rash is seen in
A) Lupus Erythematosus
B) Scleroderma
C) Dermatomyositis
D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
39. In most cases irregularity in the curvature of the cornea leads to
A) Astigmatism
B) Myopia
C) Hyperopia
D) Anisometropia
40. According to WHO classification of Xerophthalmia, X2 is
A) conjunctival xerosis
B) corneal xerosis
C) corneal ulceration
D) corneal scarring
41. Which of the following is NOT component of Moro’s reflex ?
A) Abduction of arm
B) Crying
C) Blinking of eye
D) Opening of fists
42. What should be internal diameter of endotracheal tube for neonatal resuscitation of
1700 gm baby ?
A) 2.5 mm
B) 3 mm
C) 3.5 mm
D) 4 mm
43. Most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in pediatric age group is
A) Minimal change disease
B) Membranous glomerulonephritis
C) Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
D) Mesangio proliferative glomerulonephritis
44. Neuroblastoma presents as Horner’s syndrome when arising from
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A) adrenal glands
B) paraspinal sympathetic ganglia
C) superior cervical ganglion
D) inferior cervical ganglion
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45. In neonatal resuscitation, the chest compression to ventilation ratio is
A) 2 : 1
B) 3 : 1
C) 4 : 1
D) 5 : 1
46. In experienced units the percentage of intussusceptions which can be reduced
hydrostatically without surgery is
A) 50%
B) 10%
C) 30%
D) 70%
47. Sistrunk’s operation is done for
A) Brachial cyst
B) Thyroglossal cyst
C) Cystic hygroma
D) Laryngocele
48. Polyglyconate suture material gets absorbed in
A) 21 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 180 days
49. Most common variety of intussusception in children is
A) Retrograde
B) Ileoilial
C) Ileocolic
D) Colocolic
50. The relative contraindication for PEG (Percuteneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy ) is
A) Ascites
B) Facial trauma
C) Debilitated
D) Impaired swallowing
51. Most common type of gastric polyp is
A) Inflammatory polyp
B) Malignant polyp
C) Metaplastic polyp
D) Pseudopolyp
52. Minimum score in Glasgow coma scale is
A) 0
B) 5
C) 3
D) 1
53. All are the following features of systemic inflammatory response EXCEPT
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A) Hyperthermia
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypothermia
D) Bradycardia
Patho.
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54. Fresh frozen plasma which is rich in coagulation factors and stored at – 40 to – 60°C
has
A) 7 days shelf life
B) 2 weeks shelf life
C) Two years shelf life
D) 1 years shelf life
55. The main disabilities of drooping of shoulder is seen in which of following classical
radical neck dissection ?
A) Crile
B) Howard
C) Clarke R
D) Hibbett J
56. Peau D’orange appearance of mammary skin is due to
A) Intra-epithelial
B) Sub-epidermal cancer
C) Lymphatic permeation
D) Vascular embolisation
57. All are resected in Whipple’s operation EXCEPT
A) Duodenum
B) Head of pancreas
C) Portal vein
D) Common bile duct
58. FNAC is useful in all the following types of thyroid carcinoma EXCEPT
A) Papillary
B) Follicular
C) Anaplastic
D) Medullary
59. Electrical alternans in ECG is a sign of
A) Left ventricular failure
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Constrictive pericarditis
60. Empirical treatment for a patient of viral encephalitis is
A) Acyclovir
B) Ganciclovir
C) α -interferon
D) Ribavarin
61. Treatment of choice in patients having atrial fibrillation of less than 48 hrs duration is
DM
A) Digoxin
B) Verapamil
C) DC cardioversion
D) Flecainide
Patho.
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62. Contralateral hemiplegia with ipsilateral 6th and 7th cranial nerve palsy is seen in
A) Webers syndrome
B) Claudes syndrome
C) Perinaud syndrome
D) Millard Gubler syndrome
63. In which of the following condition eradication of H. Pylori is NOT indicated ?
A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B) Maltoma
C) Peptic ulcer
D) H. Pylori positive dyspepsia
64. Hasford system used for prognosis of CML include all of the following EXCEPT
A) Spleen size
B) Platelet count
C) Cytogenetic clonal evaluation
D) Percentage of circulating blast
65. Corticosteroids are indicated in patients with alcoholic hepatitis if calculated
discriminant function is
A) > 50
B) > 32
C) > 20
D) > 62
66. Traction bronchiectasis refers to dialated airways due to
A) Pulmonary fibrosis
B) Congenital bronchiectasis
C) ABPA (Allergic bronchopulmonary asperagillosis)
D) Community acquired pneumonia
67. Sinus node dysfunction is present if sinus node recovery time (SNRT) is
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A) > 500 millisecond
B) > 1000 millisecond
C) > 1500 millisecond
D) > 300 millisecond
Patho.
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68. Most common intracranial neoplasm in adults is
A) Astrocytoma
B) Meningioma
C) Vestibular schwanoma
D) CNS lymphoma
69. Fresh Frozen plasma contains all EXCEPT
A) Fibrinogen
B) Prothrombin
C) Antithrombin
D) Protein C and S
70. Major criteria for Rheumatic fever are all EXCEPT
A) Migrating arthralgia
B) Subcutaneous nodules
C) Rheumatic chorea
D) Erythema marginatum
71. Histopathological Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion in kidney biopsy of patients with diabetic
nephropathy is
A) Thickened glomerular basement membrane
B) Expanded melangial matrix
C) Nodular glomerulosclerosis
D) Hyaline arteriosclerosis
72. A pictorial diagram which shows the broad features of the area and the cases shown as
points is called as
A) Gantt chart
B) Spot map
C) Epidemic curve
D) Forest plot
73. In which of the following method of pasteurization, ‘milk is rapidly heated to a
temperature of nearly 72 deg. C, and is held at that temperature for not less than 15
seconds, and is then rapidly cooled to 4 deg. C’ ?
DM
A) Holder
B) HTST
C) UHT
D) VAT
Patho.
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74. Which is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community ?
A) General Fertility Rate (GFR)
B) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
C) Couple Protection Rate (CPR)
D) Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)
75. To diagnose which type of leprosy given below, histamine test is recommended ?
A) Pure neuritic type
B) Lepromatous type
C) Borderline type
D) Indeterminate type
76. The shape of wound produced by double edged knife is
A) Wedge shape
B) Elliptical
C) Triangular
D) Oval
77. Which poisoning shows dark brown colour postmortem lividity ?
A) Hydrocyanic acid
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Nitrobenzene
D) Phosphorus
78. The fungus commonly causing meningitis is
A) Penicillium marneffei
B) Candida krusei
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Aspergillus flavus
79. Aspergillus species has
A) Septate hyphae
B) Pseudo hyphae
C) Metachromatic hyphae
D) No hyphae
80. The peripheral lymphoid organ in humans is
A) Thymus
B) Lymph nodes
C) Bone marrow
D) Bursa of fabricus
81. Selective alpha-one adrenergic receptor blocker is
DM
A) Phentolamine
B) Labetolol
C) Prazosin
D) Yohimbine
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82. An immunosuppressant drug that acts by preferentially inhibiting antigen triggered
signal transduction pathway in T-cells is
A) Leflunomide
B) Cyclosporine
C) Mycophenolate mofetil
D) Cyclophosphamide
83. Zileuton is a
A) Mast cell stabilizer
B) Inhaled steroid
C) 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor
D) Leukotrine receptor antagonist
84. Dales vasomotor reversal is seen with
A) Adrenaline
B) Noradrenaline
C) Ephedrine
D) Dopamine
85. CD-95 has a major role in
A) Apoptosis
B) Cell necrosis
C) Interferon activation
D) Proteolysis
86. Psammoma bodies are seen in all EXCEPT
A) Follicular Ca thyroid
B) Meningioma
C) Papillary Ca thyroid
D) Serous carcinoma of ovary
87. Carcinoid tumour of intestinal tract arises from
A) Columnar cells
B) Neuroendocrine cells
C) Smooth muscle cells
D) Lymphoid cells
88. Labile cells include all the following types of cells EXCEPT
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A) Surface epithelial cells of skin
B) Hemopoietic cells
C) Hepatocytes
D) Endometrial cells
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89. Fever in inflammation is produced by all EXCEPT
A) IL – 1
B) TNF
C) Prostaglandin
D) Leukotrine
90. The nitrogen base present in lecithin is
A) Choline
B) Ethanolamine
C) Serine
D) Inositol
91. Asparginase is an enzyme useful in the treatment of
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Hepatoma
C) Prostate cancer
D) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
92. The neurotransmitter formed by decarboxylation of glutamate is
A) Gamma-aminobutyric acid
B) Histamine
C) P-aminobenzoic acid
D) Serotonin
93. Activation of proto-oncogene to oncogene occurs by all of the following mechanisms
EXCEPT
A) Promotor insertion
B) Gene amplification
C) Transduction
D) Chromosomal translocation
94. Short chain fatty acids produced by bacteria get absorbed maximally in the
A) Ileum
B) Jejunum
C) Colon
D) Duodenum
95. In kidney, glucose reabsorption occurs in the
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A) proximal tubule
B) loop of henle
C) distal tubule
D) collecting duct
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96. Which one of the following area is protected by blood-brain barrier ?
A) Posterior pituitary
B) Area postrema
C) Thalamus
D) Organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis
97. Visual accommodation involves
A) increased tension on lens ligaments
B) a decrease in curvature of lens
C) relaxation of sphincter muscle of iris
D) contraction of ciliary muscle
98. ‘Bare area’ of liver includes following regions, EXCEPT
A) Groove for inferior vena cava
B) Porta hepatis
C) Fossa for gall-bladder
D) Caudate lobe
99. Telencephalon of developing brain gives rise to
A) Pons
B) Cerebellum
C) Cerebrum
D) Medulla oblongata
100. Ligamentum teres is remnant of
A) Ductus venosus
B) Umbilical arteries
C) Umbilical vein
D) Ductus arteriosus
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Patho.
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SECTION – B
PATHOLOGY
101. Presence of Endometrial nests in myometrium is called
A) Adenomyosis
B) Adenosis
C) Endometriosis
D) Malakoplakia
102. The most precancerous condition for carcinoma colon is
A) Familial polyposis
B) Hamartomatous polyps
C) Juvenile polyps
D) Hyperplastic polyps
103. Tumors associated with infective etiology are all EXCEPT
A) Nasopharyngeal Ca.
B) Non small cell lung Ca.
C) Hepatocellular Ca.
D) Gastric Ca.
104. A well differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from
a follicular adenoma by
A) Hurthle cell change
B) Nuclear characteristics
C) Presence of lymphoid follicles
D) Vascular invasion
105. Which of the following salivary tumor show perineural invasion commonly ?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
106. All of the following statements are true about Gleason score EXCEPT
A) Used for grading prostate cancer B) Higher the score, poorer the prognosis
C) Score range from 1-10
D) Helps in planning management
107. All of the following genes may be involved in development of CA colon EXCEPT
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A) APC
B) K-RAS
C) Beta-Catenin
D) Mismatch Repair Genes
Patho.
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108. Which of the following is associated with an intrinsic defect in the RBC membrane
A) Microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
C) Thermal injury anaemia
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
109. Zellbellen or small nests of cells is a features of
A) Thymoma
B) Lymphoma
C) Pinealoma
D) Pheochromocytoma
110. Which of the following is a proto-oncogene ?
A) BCL-2
B) MYC
C) BRCA-1
D) RB
111. The following statements are true about Tumour Suppressor Gene p53 EXCEPT
A) It regulates certain genes involved in cell cycle regulation
B) Its increased levels can induce apoptosis
C) Its activity in the cells decreases following UV irradiation and stimulates cell
cycle
D) Mutations of the p53 gene are the most common genetic alteration seen in
human cancer
112. A middle aged woman is revealed to have subepithelial bullae with granular IgA deposits
on basement membrane and she has some degree of gluten sensitivity. What is the
diagnosis ?
A) Pemphigus foliaceus
B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
C) Pemphigus vulgaris
D) Bullous pemphigoid
113. Grading of tumour depends on all EXCEPT
A) Cellular atypia
B) Degree of anaplasia
C) Metastatic spread
D) Differentiation of tumour cells
114. Tamm Horsfall protein is produced by
DM
A) Ureter
B) Collecting duct
C) Loop of Henle
D) Distal tubule
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115. Wireloop thickening of glomerular basement membrane is seen in
A) SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus)
B) Non insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus
C) RPGN (Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis)
D) Malignant hypertension
116. A 32 yrs. female, asymptomatic, not requiring blood transfusion presents with
Hb 13 gm/dl. Her HbF levels are 95%, Hb A2 1.5% which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis ?
A) Hereditary persistance of foetal hemoglobin
B) Beta homozygous thalassemia
C) Thalassemia intermedia
D) Beta heterozygous thalassemia
117. Chemotaxis is promoted by all EXCEPT
A) Lymphokines
B) Kallikrine
C) Serotonin
D) Complement factor C3
118. Which of the following gene(s) is/are associated with childhood polycystic kidney
disease ?
A) PKH D1
B) PK D1 & PK D2
C) VHL
D) MCK D1
119. Hairy cell leukaemia is a malignancy of
A) T cell
B) B cell
C) Null cell
D) Plasma cell
120. Cambium layer is seen in
DM
A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Leiomyosarcoma
D) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
Patho.
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121. Neoplasm strongly associated with endometrial hyperplasia
A) Teratoma
B) Choriocarcinoma
C) Granulosa-Theca cell tumor
D) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
122. Following type of thyroid carcinoma arises from “C” cells
A) Follicular carcinoma
B) Papillary carcinoma
C) Medullary carcinoma
D) Anaplastic carcinoma
123. Skin cancer is caused by
A) Asbestosis
B) Nitrosamine
C) Arsenic
D) Vinyl chloride
124. An example of apoptosis is
A) Calcification
B) Russell bodies
C) Councilman bodies
D) Brown atrophy
125. Hyperplasia does NOT occurs in
A) Hepatocytes
B) Smooth muscle
C) Striated muscle
D) Fibroblast
126. Reye’s syndrome is diagnosed by using with stain
A) Massan-Trichrome stain
B) Reticulin stain
C) Periodic acid-schiff (PAS) stain D) Oil Red O stain
127. Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells are seen in
A) Measles
B) Mumps
C) Chicken-pox
D) Rubella
128. Gamma Gandy bodies are seen in spleen in
A) Congestive splenomegaly
B) Lymphoma
C) Amyloidosis
D) Abscess of spleen
129. Pancoast tumours is NOT linked to which of following ?
DM
A) Horner’s syndrome
B) Anhidrosis
C) Cervical plexus involvement
D) Arthritis
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130. Edwards syndrome is
A) Trisomy 18
B) Trisomy 21
C) Trisomy 13
D) Trisomy 9
131. Birbeck granules are characteristically seen in
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Amyloidosis
C) Langerhans cell histiocytosis
D) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
132. Translocation of bcr-abl gene is characteristically seen in
A) Polycythemia vera
B) Essential thrombocytosis
C) Myelofibrosis
D) Chronic myeloid leukemia
133. Flexner–Wintersteiner rosettes are seen in
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Lymphoma
C) Hepatoblastoma
D) Dysgerminoma
134. Necrotising papillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Analgesic nephropathy
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Tubercular pyelonephritis
135. Which of the following is the most common type of glial tumours ?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Oligodendroglioma
136. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are typically present in
A) Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
B) Polypoidal cystitis
C) Malakoplakia
D) Tuberculous cystitis
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137. Which is associated with type I neurofibromatosis ?
A) Acoustic schwannoma
B) Gastrointestinal carcinoid
C) Optic gliomas
D) Renal cell carcinoma
138. The following zone of prostate is commonly involved in benign prostatic hyperplasia
A) Periurethral
B) Peripheral
C) Entire gland
D) Capsule
139. Following are the etiological factors for bronchiectasis EXCEPT
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Kartagener syndrome
C) α -1 antihypsin deficiency
D) Bronchial obstruction
140. Which of the following is a causative agent for neonatal meningitis ?
A) E.coli
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria meningitidis
141. The virus most commonly implicated in cervical carcinogenesis is
A) HPV 6, 11
B) EBV
C) HSV
D) HPV 16, 18
142. Skip lesions are characteristic of
A) Tuberculosis of intestine
B) Enteric fever
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Chrohn’s disease
143. Following type of antinuclear antibody is diagnostic of systemic lupus erythematosus.
A) Double-stranded DNA
B) Histones
C) Non-histone proteins bound to RNA
D) Nucleolar antigens
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144. Following are the examples of granulomatous inflammation EXCEPT
A) Tuberculosis
B) Typhoid fever
C) Cat-scratch disease
D) Chrohn disease
145. Intranuclear Cowdry type A inclusions are observed in the following viral infection
A) Herpes simplex
B) Cytomegalo
C) Varicella-Zoster
D) Epstein-Barr
146. Which of the following is NOT associated with oral dark pigmentation ?
A) Addison’s disease
B) Lichen planus
C) Albright’s syndrome
D) Haemochromatosis
147. Which of the following enzymes are responsible for generating ‘Oxygen burst’ within
neutrophils for killing intracellular bacteria.
A) Superoxide dismutase
B) Oxidase
C) Catalase
D) Glutathione peroxidase
148. The pathological appearance in Pseudomembranous colitis consists of
A) Excessive ulceration in serosa
B) Necrosis and gangrene
C) Small ulceration with slough
D) Serositis with covered membrane
149. Cervical smear fixation is done by
A) Acetone
B) Formalin
C) Ethyl alcohol
D) Xylene
150. Shock lung is characterised by
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A) Diffuse alveolar damage
B) Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhages
C) Bronchiolitis obliterans
D) Alveolar proteinosis
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